"Done in Convention by the Unanimous Consent of the States present the Seventeenth Day of September in the Year of our Lord one thousand seven hundred and Eighty seven and of the Independence of the United States of America the Twelfth In witness whereof We have hereunto subscribed our Names,"That's right folks. Bob believes that the Framers weren't trying to set up a secular government based on this mere dating convention. Bob rejects that this use is mere convention. In doing so, Bob ignores so much:
- There is no evidence that the Framers actually debated or voted on using the "year of our Lord" language when writing the Constitution. Doesn't it seem more reasonable that the calligrapher who prepared the document for signing, merely added the verbiage?
- The text of the Constitution also references "Sunday" and "Monday". These words are pagan in origin referring to the Sun and Moon gods. Obviously, these words were used as mere dating conventions. So why can't the word "Lord" be considered as a mere dating convention as well? Unless, of course, Bob thinks that the Framers were also honoring the pagan Gods?
- The Constitution makes no reference to Jesus, Christ, or God. If the Framers were trying to solicit God's blessing for the nation, why didn't they say something like, "We the People, under the divine guidance of Jesus Christ..." in the preamble or elsewhere in the document?
- Article VI of the Constitution stipulates that "no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States." If the Framers did not want a secular nation, why didn't they at least say, "only those who profess to be Christians are qualified"?
- The Bill of Rights, approved two years after the Constitution, omits the "year of our Lord" language in its date. It is this document which prohibits laws respecting an establishment of a religion.